Ashwin 2063

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ASHWIN 2063

Quiz

  

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1. Burking is a method of ?
   1.   Suicidal injury
   2.   Accidental injury
   3.   Drowning related injury
   4.   Homicidal injury and traumatic asphixia
2. Acrodermatitis enteropathica is due to deficiency of ?
   1.   Copper
   2.   Zinc
   3.   Calcium
   4.   Molybdenum
3. Molluscum contagiosum caused by ?
   1.   Virus
   2.   Bacteria
   3.   Fungi
   4.   Rickettsia
4. Dyskeratosis of dermoepidermal junction and saw tooth appearance of reteridges is seen in ?
   1.   Dermatomyositis
   2.   Lichen planus
   3.   Vitiligo
   4.   Pityriasis rosea
5. Acute pyogenic meningitis in adults is most commonly caused by ?
   1.   Listeria monocytogens
   2.   Neisseria meningitis
   3.   Streptococcus pneumonia
   4.   Haemophilus influenza
6. Method of diagnosis of Typhoid fever in 2nd week is ?
   1.   Blood test
   2.   Widal test
   3.   Stool test
   4.   A and B
7. Bacterial culture is diagnosed as UTI if minimum colony count of mid stream specimen is ?
   1.   >100/ml
   2.   >1000/ml
   3.   >10000/ml
   4.   >100000/ml
8. At what age (in years) does a child attain a height of 100 cm ?
   1.   2
   2.   3
   3.   4
   4.   6
9. A baby placed in prone position is able to lift head and upper chest in ?
   1.   3 months
   2.   6 months
   3.   9 months
   4.   12 months
10. Hemorrhagic disease of new born is caused due to deficiency of ?
    1.   Vit K
    2.   Vit E
    3.   Vit C
    4.   Vit A
11. Good attachment of infant to mother's breast during breast feeding indicates all except ?
    1.   Mouth of infant is wide open
    2.   Lower lip of infant is inverted
    3.   Chin of infant touches the mother's breast
    4.   Upper part of areola is visible more
12. Diagnosis of HIV in 2-month-old child is diagnosed by all except ?
    1.   DNA PCR
    2.   HIV ELISA
    3.   P24 antigen assay
    4.   Viral culture
13. First sign of sexual maturity in boys is ?
    1.   Vocal modulation
    2.   Increased height
    3.   Facial hairs
    4.   Increase testicular size
14. A 26 days infant presents with recurrent non bilious vomiting with constipation and loss of weight. It is diagnosed to be ?
    1.   Pyloric stenosis
    2.   Esophageal atresia
    3.   Heal atresia
    4.   Annular pancreas
15. Sabin vaccine is preferred to salk vaccine because ?
    1.   Sabin vaccine confers herd immunity
    2.   Sabin vaccine stimulates cell mediated immunity
    3.   Sabin vaccine is killed vaccine
    4.   Vaccine associated with polio is not reported with sabin vaccines
16. Measure of actual observed mortality in a community is measured by ?
    1.   Crude death rate
    2.   Gender specific death rate
    3.   Age adjusted death rate
    4.   Specific death rate
17. Chicken pox is infectious during ?
    1.   4 days after onset of rash
    2.   1 day before and 4 days after onset of rash
    3.   During incubation period only
    4.   4 days before and 1 day after onset if rash
18. Combined oral pills reduces risk of ?
    1.   Ovarian cancer
    2.   Cervical cancer
    3.   Vaginal cancer
    4.   Breast cancer
19. Total iron requirement during pregnancy is ?
    1.   500
    2.   700
    3.   1000
    4.   1200
20. Biological value of egg protein is ?
    1.   75
    2.   80
    3.   100
    4.   125
21. The most commonly occurring value in a series is known as ?
    1.   Average
    2.   Median
    3.   Mean
    4.   Mode
22. Human development index (HDI) includes all of the following except ?
    1.   Life expectancy at birth
    2.   Life expectancy at age one
    3.   Knowledge
    4.   Per capita GDP
23. Which of the following is not a contraindication of breast feeding ?
    1.   Acute pulmonary TB
    2.   Decompensated organic heart lesion
    3.   Puerperal psychosis
    4.   Mother on antiretroviral therapy
24. Sub-acute sclerosing pan-encephalitis is associated with ?
    1.   Rabies
    2.   Polio
    3.   Encephalitis
    4.   Measles
25. In which type of leprosy lepromin test is positive ?
    1.   Tuberculoid
    2.   Borderline
    3.   Lepromatous
    4.   Borderline lepromatous
26. During first 6 months of lactation additional calorie allowance required for mother is ?
    1.   600 kcal
    2.   500 kcal
    3.   400 kcal
    4.   300 kcal
27. Disease notifiable to WHO in Geneva under international health regulation is ?
    1.   Cholera
    2.   Plaque
    3.   Yellow fever
    4.   All of the above
28. Primordial prevention is ?
    1.   Prevention prior to onset of disease
    2.   Early detection of disease by screening
    3.   Prevention of emergence of risk factors of disease
    4.   Prevention of disease from causing complication
29. Bagassosis is caused by inhalation of ?
    1.   Cotton dust
    2.   Sugarcane dust
    3.   Asbestos
    4.   Silica
30. Keratometer measures ?
    1.   Thickness of cornea
    2.   Corneal sensation
    3.   Diameter of cornea
    4.   Radius of curvature of cornea
31. Nummular keratitis is a feature of ?
    1.   Fungal keratitis
    2.   Herpes zoster keraitis
    3.   Bacteria keratitis
    4.   Acanthomoeba keratitis
32. Lens is developed from ?
    1.   Neural crest
    2.   Mesoderm
    3.   Neuroectoderm
    4.   Surface ectoderm
33. Distant metasis in retinoblastoma is commonly seen in ?
    1.   Long bones
    2.   Lungs
    3.   Brain
    4.   Liver
34. The junction between retina and cilliary body is ?
    1.   Equator
    2.   Pars plicata
    3.   Pars plana
    4.   Ora serata
35. Contains of littre's hernia sac is ?
    1.   Circumference of bowel
    2.   Appendix
    3.   Urinary bladder
    4.   Meckel's diverticulum
36. Paget's test is performed for ?
    1.   Lipoma
    2.   Small cystic swelling
    3.   Large hydrocele
    4.   Carcinoma of breast
37. In a patient with head injury what will be the glassgow coma scale for a patient with eye opening to verbal stimulus, disoriented and withdrawal to motor response ?
    1.   10
    2.   11
    3.   12
    4.   13
38. Treatment of congenital hydrocele is ?
    1.   Herniorrhaphy
    2.   Herniotomy
    3.   Lord's operation
    4.   Jaboulay's operation
39. Escharotomy operation is done on ?
    1.   Burn patient
    2.   Peripheral vascular disease patient
    3.   DVT patient
    4.   Thigh abscess
40. Which of the following is not a feature of acute arterial obstruction ?
    1.   Parasthesia
    2.   Pallor
    3.   Cyanosis
    4.   Pulselessness
41. Triage means ?
    1.   Determining the priority of the patient treatment based on the severity of their condition
    2.   1st come 1st treatment
    3.   Moribund patient require great deal of attention are first given priority
    4.   All affected to be given equal attention
42. Contre-coup injury to brain is more common in ?
    1.   Fixed head
    2.   Moving head
    3.   Blunt stationary force
    4.   Sharp force
43. A young man presented with pleuritic chest pain and cough. On percussion there is dullness over the right base and there is no breath sound in the right lower zone. Most likely diagnosis is ?
    1.   Right lower lobe consolidation
    2.   Right lower lobe fibrosis
    3.   Right pleural effusion
    4.   Right pneumothorax
44. In which type of shock there is warm periphery ?
    1.   Neurogenic Shock
    2.   Septic Shock
    3.   Hypovolumic Shock
    4.   Cardiogenic Shock
45. What would be the first line of management in acute severe bronchial asthma ?
    1.   IV aminophylline
    2.   Beta 2 agonist administration through nebulizer
    3.   Oral methylprednisolone
    4.   IV magnesium
46. Patient has great difficutly in going downstairs in ?
    1.   Superior oblique palsy
    2.   Inferior oblique palsy
    3.   Lateral rectus palsy
    4.   Medial rectus palsy
47. Which one of the following treatment prove the long term prognosis in COPD
    1.   Inhaled steroids
    2.   Oral steroids
    3.   Inhaled beta agonist
    4.   Long term O2 therapy
48. Which one of the following improve survival after myocardial infaction ?
    1.   Early thrombolytic therapy
    2.   IV nitrates
    3.   Early use of calcium antagonist
    4.   Use of amiodarone
49. Which one of the following statement is not true about high quality chest compression in cardiac pulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
    1.   Check pulse after every 200 compressions
    2.   Allow chest recoil after every compression
    3.   Rate of compression should be at least 100/min
    4.   Compression ventilation ratio should be 30:2
50. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is useful in all except ?
    1.   Carbon monoxide poisoning
    2.   Emphysema
    3.   Gas gangrene
    4.   Frost bite
51. Neck stiffness and kerning's sign are present in ?
    1.   Encephalitis
    2.   Raised ICP
    3.   Meningitis
    4.   Tetanus
52. Which of the following is not a diagnostic criteria of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
    1.   Temperature > 38 *c or < 36 *c
    2.   Heart rate > 90 beats/min
    3.   RR> 20 breath/min
    4.   WBC count < 12000/mm
53. Type II respiratory failure can occur in ?
    1.   Pneumonia
    2.   Rib fracture
    3.   COPD
    4.   Pleural effusion
54. Most abundant immunoglobulin in breast milk is ?
    1.   IgG
    2.   IgA
    3.   IgM
    4.   IgD
55. Which is not true about syphilis ?
    1.   Man is dead end host
    2.   Caused by spirochaete
    3.   Transmitted from mother to child
    4.   Penicillin 2.4 million units is the drug of choice
56. Calcium requirement per day in pregnancy is ?
    1.   500 mg
    2.   1000 mg
    3.   1200 mg
    4.   1500 mg
57. Natural host of herpes is ?
    1.   Monkey
    2.   Dog
    3.   Man
    4.   Mouse
58. Which of the following antibiotic is the most common cuase of antibiotic associated diarrhea ?
    1.   Amoxicillin
    2.   Pyrazinamide
    3.   Azithromycin
    4.   Clindamycin
59. Drug not used in HOCM is ?
    1.   Verapamil
    2.   Digoxin
    3.   Amiodarone
    4.   Propranolol
60. Most probable malignancy to develop in case of long standing goiter is ?
    1.   Follicular carcinoma
    2.   Anaplastic carcinoma
    3.   Medullary carcinoma
    4.   Papillary carcinoma
61. Uterus becomes pelvic organ following delivery after ?
    1.   4-6 days
    2.   8-10 days
    3.   12-14 days
    4.   20-22 days
62. A 35 years old patient who returned from India comes history of rapid loss of weight and fever for 1 month. He is suspected of HIV. The early diagnosis of HIV is done by ?
    1.   ELISA
    2.   P24 antigen
    3.   Western blot
    4.   STD screening test
63. Massive splenomegaly is not seen in ?
    1.   Kalazar
    2.   Chronic malaria
    3.   Tuberculosis
    4.   Infectious mononucleosis
64. Post operative nausea and vomiting are uncommon with ?
    1.   Etomidate
    2.   Thiopentone
    3.   Propofol
    4.   All of the above
65. Suxamethonium can cause all of the following except ?
    1.   Hyperkalemia
    2.   Raised intra-gastric pressure
    3.   Raised IOP
    4.   HIstamine release
66. Spider leg appearance on IVP is seen in ?
    1.   Polycystic kidney disease
    2.   Horseshoe kidney
    3.   Renal carcinoma
    4.   Renal stones
67. Subperiosteal bleeding is seen in radiology of ?
    1.   Rickets
    2.   Scurvy
    3.   Pontine
    4.   Osteomalacia
68. Fromet's sign is used for the clinical detection of ?
    1.   Ulnar nerve palsy
    2.   Median nerve palsy
    3.   Tibial nerve palsy
    4.   Radial nerve palsy
69. Lower limb attitude seen in posterior dislocation of hip is ?
    1.   Flexion, adduction, internal rotation
    2.   Extension, abduction, internal rotation
    3.   Flexion, abduction, internal rotation
    4.   Extension, adduction, internal rotation
70. 15 years old boy has a lesion in the medullary part at lower end of the metaphysis of tibia. It is diagnosed to be ?
    1.   Giant cell tumor
    2.   Ewing's sarcoma
    3.   Chondrosarcoma
    4.   Osteosarcoma
71. Sternal angle is associated with all except ?
    1.   Articulation of 1st costal cartilage
    2.   Articulation of 2nd costal cartilage
    3.   Beginning of arch of aorta
    4.   Lower end of body of 4th thoracic vertebra
72. Winging of scapula is due to palsy of ?
    1.   Axillary nerve
    2.   Ulnar nerve
    3.   Long thoracic nerve
    4.   Medial pectoral nerve
73. The stomach bed is formed by all of the following except ?
    1.   Splenic flexure of colon
    2.   Left lobe of liver
    3.   Spleen
    4.   Pancreas
74. All of the following are associated with spermatic cord except ?
    1.   Testicular artery
    2.   Ductus deferens
    3.   ilioinguinal nerve
    4.   Pampiniform plexus
75. Protein synthesis takes place in ?
    1.   ER
    2.   Golgi bodies
    3.   Peroxisomes
    4.   Mitochondria
76. Not a feature of adenoid hypertrophy is ?
    1.   Open mouth
    2.   Crowding of lower tooth
    3.   Pinched up nose
    4.   Dull expression
77. True about tubercular otitis media is ?
    1.   Multiple perforation of pars tensa
    2.   Attic perforation
    3.   Marginal perforation of tympanic membrane
    4.   Large central perforation of tympanic membrane
78. N-acetylcysteine reduces severity of hepatic necrosis in toxicity due to ?
    1.   Methyldopa
    2.   Halothane
    3.   Isoniazid
    4.   Acetaminophen
79. Treatment of H. pylori infection are all except ?
    1.   Ciprofloxacin
    2.   Amoxicillin
    3.   Clarithromycin
    4.   Metronidazole
80. Drugs used in organophosphate poisoning are all except ?
    1.   Activated charcoal
    2.   Atropine
    3.   Pralidoxime
    4.   Naloxone
81. Drugs used for radical cure of P. vivax malaria is ?
    1.   Primaquine
    2.   Tetracycline
    3.   Chloroquine
    4.   Artesunate
82. Mydriatic drug with shortest duration of action is ?
    1.   Atropine
    2.   Cocaine
    3.   Tropicamide
    4.   Homatropine
83. All are true about schizophrenia except ?
    1.   Visual hallucination
    2.   Thought disorder
    3.   Insight present
    4.   Auditory hallucination
84. Which of the following drug is not used in bipolar disorder ?
    1.   Phenytoin
    2.   Sodium valproate
    3.   Lithium carbonate
    4.   Olanzepine
85. A 60 year old man presented with generalized swelling of body and shortness of breath. On examination there is pulsatile liver. What is the expected finding ?
    1.   Pulsus bigeminy
    2.   Prominent V wave on JVP
    3.   Systolic murmur increased during expiration
    4.   Tracheal tug
86. Normal level of serum creatinine in mg % is ?
    1.   0.4 to 1.4
    2.   1.2 to 1.8
    3.   1.9 to 2.5
    4.   2.0 to 3.6
87. The anti tubercular drug most likely to cause peripheral neruritis is ?
    1.   Isoniazide
    2.   Rifampicine
    3.   Pyrizinamide
    4.   Ethambutal
88. A 8+ week pregnant woman presented with pain abdomen and vaginal bleeding. The most probable diagnosis is ?
    1.   Incomplete abortion
    2.   Complete abotion
    3.   Threatened abortion
    4.   Ectopic pregnancy
89. A doctor is graded good in society by ?
    1.   The knowledge he possesses
    2.   The skill he possesses
    3.   His good behavior in society
    4.   All of the above
90. Socialization means ?
    1.   To adopt social norms and values
    2.   To start an organization
    3.   Socialist revolution
    4.   To copy western cultures
91. Contraceptive preventing STI and HIV is ?
    1.   OCP
    2.   Condom
    3.   DMPA
    4.   Copper-T
92. True about uterovaginal prolapse ?
    1.   Occurs in nulliparous woman
    2.   Aggravated by cough
    3.   Pessary is permanent treatment
    4.   More in patient with history of CS
93. Nephrotoxic drug among the following ?
    1.   Gentamycin
    2.   Amoxycillin
    3.   Cephalosporin
    4.   Chloramphenicol
94. Drugs that should be avoided in pregnancy ?
    1.   Amoxycillin
    2.   Cefixime
    3.   Tetracycline
    4.   Folic acid
95. Commonest complication of ovarian cyst is ?
    1.   Torsion
    2.   Infection
    3.   Hemorrhage
    4.   Rupture
96. A 3 years old boy is complaining of cough since last 100 days with repeated episodes of vomiting. The diagnosis is ?
    1.   TB
    2.   Whooping cough
    3.   Bronchiolitis
    4.   Pneumonia
97. A 35 years old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus developed BP of 160/100. The drug of choice is ?
    1.   Enalapril
    2.   Amlodipine
    3.   Propranolol
    4.   Atenolol
98. IMR is mortality of ?
    1.   < 1 year old
    2.   < 30 days old
    3.   < 5 years old
    4.   < 3 years old
99. Xerophthalmia is caused by the deficiency of ?
    1.   Vit B
    2.   Vit C
    3.   Vit A
    4.   Vit D
100. A 72 years old man is complaining of gradual painless loss of vision. On examination there is cloudy pupillary reflex. The diagnosis is ?
     1.   Pterygium
     2.   Cataract
     3.   Retinal detachment
     4.   Glaucoma
101. Quinsy is the condition in which there is pus in ?
     1.   Retropharyngeal space
     2.   Submandibular space
     3.   Parapharyngeal space
     4.   Peritonsillar space
102. Frontal synus in x-ray appears in ....of age ?
     1.   1 year
     2.   2 years
     3.   5 years
     4.   10 years
103. In pancreas which of the following cells secrete insulin ?
     1.   Beta cells
     2.   Delta cells
     3.   Alfa cells
     4.   Gamma cells
104. A 70 years old man has icterus with distended gall bladder. The most probable diagnosis is ?
     1.   Ca head of pancreas
     2.   Ca tail of pancreas
     3.   Hepatitis
     4.   Cholelithiasis
105. A patient on his third post operative day developed urinary output of 10 ml/hr, CVP 2 cm, BP 90/60. What will you do ?
     1.   Give dopamine
     2.   Catheterization
     3.   Fluid challenge
     4.   Observe
106. A 7 day old neonate has features of septicemia. The drug of choice is ?
     1.   Penicillin + gentamycin
     2.   IV ceftriaxone
     3.   Penicillin only
     4.   Metronidazole
107. A 60 years old patient compains of ill health, weight loss. There is splenomegaly. On investigation TC is 48000 with 97% lymphocytes. The diagnosis is ?
     1.   CLL
     2.   ALL
     3.   CML
     4.   AML
108. Hepatitis causing epidemic is ?
     1.   HBV
     2.   HCV
     3.   HAV
     4.   HDV
109. Fat drops in faeces is seen in ?
     1.   Chronic pancreatitis
     2.   Acute pancreatitis
     3.   Cirrhosis
     4.   Hepatitis
110. The following statement is false about GCS
     1.   It is estimation of severity of head injury
     2.   Maximum score is 15
     3.   The minimum score is 0
     4.   Score less than 8 means severe injury
111. In mumps ?
     1.   Orchitis occurs in < 1 year old child
     2.   Vit A deficiency may occur
     3.   Pancreatitis is a known complication
     4.   Arthritis is a common complication
112. A 2 years old male is complaining of red congestion of eye, fever with maculopapular rashes. The diagnosis is ?
     1.   Measles
     2.   Conjuctivitis
     3.   Typhoid
     4.   Chicken pox
113. Neck of indirect hernia is in ?
     1.   Medial to inferior epigastric artery
     2.   Superficial to deep ring
     3.   Lateral to inferior epigastric artery
     4.   Deep to inguinal ligament
114. A 16 years old male presents with pain in the left testis sudden in onset. Right testis is normal. The most likely diagnosis is ?
     1.   Hydrocele
     2.   Torsion
     3.   Spermatocele
     4.   Varicocele
115. Swelling in the posterior triangle of neck in a 4 years old child with positive transillumination test is most likely to be ?
     1.   Ranula
     2.   Dermoid
     3.   Cystic hygroma
     4.   Hemangioma
116. Colles fracture most commonly occurs in ?
     1.   Young adults
     2.   Postmenopausal female
     3.   Elderly
     4.   Children
117. A 6 month old child has meningitis. The commonest causative organism is ?
     1.   Streptococcus pneumonia
     2.   Hemophhilus influenzae
     3.   Group B Streptococcus
     4.   E. coli
118. Hysteria is type of
     1.   Psychosis
     2.   Neurosis
     3.   Schizophrenic form
     4.   Somatoform disorder
119. Most common cause of rupture of spleen is ?
     1.   Malaria
     2.   Trauma
     3.   Leukemia
     4.   Infectious mononucleosis
120. A 64 years old man presented with hematuria with no history of pain abdomen, fever and burning micturation. The investigation of choice is ?
     1.   IVU
     2.   Cystoscopy
     3.   CT scan
     4.   USG
121. Most common cause of bleeding per rectum in 1 year old child is ?
     1.   Rectal polyp
     2.   Anal fissure
     3.   Hemorrhoid
     4.   Rectal prolapsed
122. A 30 years old woman has lump in her right breast, non tender and firm in nature with no palpable lymph nodes. The diagnosis is ?
     1.   Fibroadenoma
     2.   Fibroadenosis
     3.   Carcinoma
     4.   Breast abcess
123. On the 8th postoperative day a man complains of shortness of breath and swelling of left leg with no other chest finding. The diagnosis is ?
     1.   Chest infection
     2.   Pulmonary embolism
     3.   Asthma
     4.   Congestive cardiac failure
124. True about corpus luteum is ?
     1.   Scretes mainly progesterone
     2.   Lasts for 21 days
     3.   Made up of theca cells
     4.   Secretes LH
125. Hemophilia A is due to deficiency of ?
     1.   Factor VIII
     2.   Factor IX
     3.   Factor X
     4.   Factor VI
126. Absolute indication of amputation of foot among the following is ?
     1.   Gangrene
     2.   Septicemia
     3.   Crush injury
     4.   Cellulitis
127. Steroid is always indicated in ?
     1.   Asthma
     2.   TB
     3.   Pneumonia
     4.   TB meningitis
128. Bence jones protein is seen in ?
     1.   Multiple myeloma
     2.   TB
     3.   SLE
     4.   CML
129. IUCD is inserted on ?
     1.   4th day of menstruation
     2.   28th day of cycle
     3.   1st day of menstruation
     4.   Immediately after coitus
130. A patient with cervical injury is brought in emergency. First thing to do is ?
     1.   Airway maintenance
     2.   Cervical stability
     3.   IV fluids
     4.   Oxygen
131. A) A G3P2 lady with 38 weeks of gestation was admitted in labor room. She is having labor pain since last 2 hours. Her cervix was 3 cm dilated and 2 cm in thickness, soft in consistency and was lying anteriorly. The fetal head is in -1 station. The fetal HR was 150/min ( 5 questions are related with above condition)
     
     131. Calculate the Bishop's score in the given case ?
     1.   8
     2.   9
     3.   10
     4.   11
132. The patient is in...stage of labour ?
     1.   First
     2.   Second
     3.   Third
     4.   Labour is not yet started
133. All of the following are features of labour pain EXCEPT ?
     1.   Painful uterine contraction at regular interval
     2.   Formation of bag of water
     3.   Show
     4.   Usually relieved by enema and administration of a sedative
134. In Partograph the X - axis denotes ?
     1.   Time in hours
     2.   Cervical dilation
     3.   Descent of head
     4.   BP and pulse
135. All of the followings are true about the active management of third stage of labour EXCEPT ?
     1.   IV Oxytocin given
     2.   IM Oxytocin, uterine massage done
     3.   IM Methergin 0.2 mg is given
     4.   Active cord traction
136. B) A 28 years of nulliparous woman complained of something descending in her vagina during straining and coughing which reduces itself or when she lies down. P/S examination was normal and she gave normal menstrual history ( 5 questions are related to above condition).
     
     136. What is the most probable diagnosis ?
     1.   Vulval cyst
     2.   Hematocolpus
     3.   Rectal prolapsed
     4.   Prolapsed uterus
137. If the descent of cervix is upto introitus then the degree of prolapse is ?
     1.   1*
     2.   2*
     3.   3*
     4.   Procidentia
138. Which of the following surgery do you advice to the patient ?
     1.   Manchester operation
     2.   Shirodkar's operation
     3.   Le Fort's repair
     4.   Abdominal sling operation
139. What would be your advice if the patient had completed her family and is not keen on retaining childbearing and menstrual function ?
     1.   Manchester operation
     2.   Le Fort's repair
     3.   Vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair
     4.   Shirodkar's operation
140. Decubitus ulcer in prolapsed uterus occurs mainly due to ?
     1.   Infection
     2.   Friction
     3.   Venous congestion
     4.   Malignant changes
141. C) A 45 years old male complained of gradually progressive swelling with dragging pain in the left upper abdomen, especially in upright posture for last 5 months. He also has loss of appetite, weakness and loss of weight. His blood examination showed normocytic normochromic anemia, TC=200,000/mm3, platelet count was normal and ESR was increased ( 5 questions are related to above condition).
     
     141) What is the most probable diagnosis ?
     1.   AML
     2.   ALL
     3.   CML
     4.   Chronic malaria
142. Which of the following is most diagnostic of this disease?
     1.   Massive splenomegaly
     2.   Philadelphia chromosome
     3.   Burr cells
     4.   Auer's rod
143. Which of the following phase in this disease is easily controlled by drugs ?
     1.   Chronic phase
     2.   Accelerated phase
     3.   Blast crisis phase
     4.   All of the above
144. The drug of choice is ?
     1.   Busulphan
     2.   Hydroxyurea
     3.   Alpha-interferon
     4.   Imatinib
145. All are the cause of splenomegaly EXCEPT ?
     1.   Enteric fever
     2.   COPD
     3.   Leukemia
     4.   Infectious mononucleosis
146. D) A 14 years old boy presented with high grade fever with chills associated with acute pain in throat radiating to ear. He also complained of odynophagia and muffled thick speech. On examination uvula was edematous and cervical LN were enlarged and tender ( 5 questions are related to above condition).
     
     146. What is the most probable diagnosis ?
     1.   Peritonsilar abscess
     2.   Retropharyngeal abscess
     3.   Parapharyngeal abscess
     4.   Diphtheria
147. How will you manage this case?
     1.   Wait and watch
     2.   Tracheostomy and drainage externally
     3.   Antibiotics for 48 hours and if failed drainage
     4.   Immediate abscess drainage
148. Suppuration in space of Gillete is known as ?
     1.   Peritonsillar abscess
     2.   Quinsy
     3.   Retropharyngeal abscess
     4.   Parapharyngeal abscess
149. Membrane on tonsil is not caused by ?
     1.   Staphylococcus aureus
     2.   Diphtheria
     3.   Vincent's angina
     4.   Infectious mononucleosis
150. Main source of blood supply to tonsil is ?
     1.   Pharyngeal artery
     2.   Facial artery
     3.   Maxillary artery
     4.   Lingual artery
151. E) A 15 years old boy came with the history of difficulty in visualization of far objects but could easily read his book. He also gave history of headache and watering of eye ( 5 questions are related to above condition).
     
     151. What is the most probable diagnosis ?
     1.   Myopia
     2.   Hypermetropia
     3.   Ambylopia
     4.   Presbyopia
152. In this type of visual defect the image is formed?
     1.   In front of retina
     2.   Behind the retina
     3.   At retina
     4.   At infinity
153. What type of glasses will you advice to the patient ?
     1.   Concave
     2.   Convex
     3.   Planoconcave
     4.   Plane
154. Normal diameter of lens in an adult human eye is ?
     1.   3mm
     2.   6mm
     3.   9mm
     4.   12mm
155. Visual acquity is most commonly affected by ?
     1.   Contraction of ciliary muscles
     2.   Macular pathology
     3.   Increased convexity of lens
     4.   Retinal pathology
156. F) A 28 years old lady has put on weight (10 kg over a period of 2 years ), and has oligomenorrhoea for 8 months. The blood pressure is 160/100 mm of Hg ( 5 questions are related to above condition).
     
     156. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation ?
     1.   Serum electrolyte
     2.   Plasma cortisol
     3.   USG abdomen
     4.   Plasma testosterone
157. Features not seen in cushing's syndrome is ?
     1.   Hypoglycemia
     2.   Hypertension
     3.   Frank psychosis
     4.   Hypokalemia
158. The most common cause of cushing's syndrome is ?
     1.   Cancer producing ectopic ACTH
     2.   Pituitary adenoma
     3.   Adrenal tuberculosis
     4.   Iatrogenic steroids
159. The differentiating feature between ectopic ACTH secretion and cushing syndrome is ?
     1.   Hypokalemic alkalosis
     2.   Clinical features of Cushing syndrome
     3.   Hyperpigmentation
     4.   Hypertension
160. Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of Cushing syndrome ?
     1.   Loss of diurnal variation of cortisol secretion
     2.   Increase in plasma ACTH
     3.   Increased plasma cortisol
     4.   Increased urinary metabolites of cortisol
161. G) A patient comes with respiratory distress. On examination there are bilateral basal crepts and S3 gallop rhythm. He gives history of walking up at night due to difficulty in breathing for the last 15 days ( 5 questions are related to above condition).
     
     161. The most probable diagnosis is ?
     1.   Pulmonary infarction
     2.   Congestive cardiac failure
     3.   Community acquired pneumonia
     4.   COPD
162. Which of the following is not a MAJOR Framingham criteria in CHF ?
     1.   Cardiomegaly
     2.   Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
     3.   S3 gallop ghythm
     4.   Hepatomegaly
163. All of the following are features of right sided heart failure EXCEPT ?
     1.   Increased PCWP
     2.   Raised JVP
     3.   Congestive hepatomegaly
     4.   Peripheral edema
164. All of the following statements about digitalis are true EXCEPT ?
     1.   Mostly renal excretion
     2.   Oral absorption is good
     3.   Actively metabolized in liver
     4.   Lipid soluble
165. Followings are used in digitalis toxicity EXCEPT ?
     1.   Potassium
     2.   Lignocaine
     3.   Fat particles
     4.   Hemodialysis
166. H) A patient presents to the hospital for persistent fever and significant weight loss for over past 2 months. On examinations and investigations are unremarkable. Biopsy from cervical nodes is performed and returns positive for Hodgkin's lymphoma (5 questions are related to above condition).
     
     166. The patient can be staged as having ?
     1.   Stage II a
     2.   Stage II b
     3.   Stage III a
     4.   Stage III b
167. The cell characteristics of Hodgkin's disease are ?
     1.   Lacunar cells
     2.   Reed-sternberg cells
     3.   Giant cells
     4.   Eiosinophils
168. Most common type of Hodgkin's lymphoma is ?
     1.   Nodular sclerosis
     2.   Lymphocyte predominant
     3.   Mixed cellular
     4.   Lymphocyte depletion
169. The paraneoplastic syndrome associated with Hodgkin's lymphoma is ?
     1.   Nephritic syndrome
     2.   Retinopathy
     3.   Cerebellar degenerative disease
     4.   Acanthosis nigricans
170. Best prognostic type of Hodgkin's lymphoma is ?
     1.   Nodular sclerosis
     2.   Lymphocytic predominant
     3.   Mixed cellularity
     4.   Lymphocyte depletion
171. I ) A 2 years old child is being evaluated for persistent metabolic acidosis. Blood test shows : Na+ = 140mEq/L , K+ =3mEq/L , Ca++ =8 mg/L ,Mg++ =2 mEq/L , pH = 7.22 mEq/L, Cl- = 112 mEq/L (5 questions are related to above condition).
     
     171. The plasma anion gap is ?
     
     
     1.   9
     2.   15
     3.   22
     4.   25
172. Increased anion gap is not seen in ?
     1.   Salicylate poisoning
     2.   Renal tubular acidosis
     3.   Lactic acidosis
     4.   Ethylene glycol poisoning
173. Lactic acidosis is not seen in ?
     1.   Methanol poisoning
     2.   Respiratory failure
     3.   Circulatory failure
     4.   Tolbutamide therapy
174. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in ?
     1.   Cholera
     2.   Starvation
     3.   Ethylene glyol poisoning
     4.   Lactic acidosis
175. Which of the following is useful to predict acid-base characteristics of arterial blood based on pCO2 ?
     1.   Red ford nomogram
     2.   Dubio's nomogram
     3.   Goldman constant field equation
     4.   Siggard-Anderson nomogram
176. J) Chandu , a 45 years old male shows calcification on the right side of his abdomen in an AP view. In lateral view, the calcification is seen to overlie the spine ( 5 questions are related to above condition )
     
     176. Most likely diagnosis is ?
     
     1.   Gall stone
     2.   Calcified mesenteric nodes
     3.   Renal stones
     4.   Calcified rib
177. Referred pain from ureteric colic is felt in the groin due to involvement of the following nerve ?
     1.   Subcostal
     2.   iliohypogastric
     3.   ilioinguinal
     4.   Genitofemoral
178. All of the following renal stones are radio-opaque. EXCEPT ?
     1.   Oxalate
     2.   Uric acid
     3.   Cystine
     4.   Mixed
179. Commonest type of renal stone seen in case of UTI is ?
     1.   Phosphate
     2.   Oxalate
     3.   Urate
     4.   Cysteine
180. A 10 mm calculus in the right lower ureter associated with proximal hydroureteronephrosis is best treated with ?
     1.   Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotomy
     2.   Anterograde percutaneous access
     3.   Open Uretero Lithotomy
     4.   Ureteroscopic retrieval